Re: OT: Re: Why do people in the UK put a u in the word color?
Ron Johnson wrote:
On Mon, 2006-04-17 at 10:36 -0500, Mike McCarty wrote:
Andrei Popescu wrote:
On Sat, 15 Apr 2006 21:32:48 +0300
Andrei Popescu <andreimpopescu@gmail.com> wrote:
I agree. And the resulting text is not so unintelligible if you are
used to phonetic spelling.
Like the Romanian language has. (Just to be clear)
Are you sure? Many native speakers of languages *think* they have
phonetic spelling when they do not. I have, for example, had
conversations with several Russians who believe that Russian
is spelled phonetically. Phonetic means for each symbol there
is exactly one sound associated,
I'm 99.9% sure that, in this case, "symbol" can mean "one or more
letters". After all, how do you distinguish between "long vowel"
and "short vowel"?
No, one "symbol" means "one graphic character". They must have
different written symbols. I don't use the word "letter" because
that presupposes an alphabet of some sort, which is not necessarily
the case.
and for each sound there is exactly
one symbol. Many speakers of Spanish believe it is spelled
phonetically (at least for the Madrid dialect) with just a few
exceptions (like the "silent h"). This is quite untrue, but
usually requires pointing out some counterexamples.
Technically, "phonetic" means that there is a one to one
correspondence between the phonemes (sounds, sort of) of the spoken
language and the written symbols (letters, sort of) of the
written language.
What constitutes a phoneme is somewhat complicated. For example,
English contains both a hard "d" and a palatal "d", and though
they are different sounds, they are not considered different
phonemes. In my dialect of spoken English, the words "do" and
"dew" are distinguished by the use of the hard /d/ in the first,
and the palatal /dj/ in the second. Other dialects do not so
distinguish, pronouncing both /du/. I say /du/ and /dju/,
respectively.
Mike
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