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Re: GPL "+" question

Please end this thread, it's getting nuts. Ask the FSF if you're still unclear.


On Fri, May 29, 2015 at 11:41 AM, Paul Tagliamonte <paultag@debian.org> wrote:
> On Fri, May 29, 2015 at 05:11:12PM +0200, Ole Streicher wrote:
>> Again: please provide a reference for this. The copyright holder has
>> surely the initial right to license his work, but I don't see a reason
>> why he can't transfer this.
> Via copyright asignment, not licensing, unless the license includes a
> copyright asignment to an entity.
>> It is also wrong for the "changed" case that we have: If only the
>> copyright holder (Mark Calabretta) had the right to change the license,
>> then the files in question could not have been modified and distributed
>> under the GPL-3+ license by the upstream author (Emmanuel Bertin) --
> They *can* since the work as modified *can* be distributed under the
> terms of the GPLv3+, *without* changing the original work's license, but
> the *file* can be distributed as GPLv3+, since that's the minimum
> license needed to comply with all parts.
>> since even the modified files are still copyrighted by Mark, so the
>> Emmanuel alone could not change their license. This is, however, against
>> the idea of the "+" in the GPL versions.
> No, it's really not.
>> Therefore, please show a proof that only the copyright holder can change
>> the license.
> Wat? Copyright statute? What jurisdiction? If you want to fight this, I
> suggest you get a lawyer, I don't know any jurisdiction where I can take
> a work of yours and now claim I have the rights to it under a different
> license.
> The proof is on you -- where does it say you can relicense someone
> else's copyrighted work / IP? Not *redistribute*, *relicense*.
> Cheers,
>   Paul
> --
>  .''`.  Paul Tagliamonte <paultag@debian.org>  |   Proud Debian Developer
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