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Re: Recipient validation - WAS: Re: Moderated posts?



On 10/15/2014 12:40 PM, Tanstaafl wrote:
> On 10/15/2014 12:06 PM, Jerry Stuckle <jstuckle@attglobal.net> wrote:
>> On 10/15/2014 8:14 AM, Tanstaafl wrote:
>>> On 10/14/2014 3:28 PM, Jerry Stuckle <jstuckle@attglobal.net> wrote:
>>>> But you just said it was OK to delete emails.
> 
>>> Please don't misquote me. I said it was the *worst case*, meaning, only
>>> marginally better than *bouncing* them, which you should never do.
>>>
>>> I certainly did not say it was 'OK'.
> 
>> You said it was OK.  You may try to attack conditions to it - but you
>> still said it was OK.
> 
> Easy enough to prove. By all means, quote the actual text of me saying
> this was 'OK'...
> 

You said:

"However, once a message has been accepted - ie, *after* the DATA phase
is complete, it should never be bounced, it should be delivered - or,
worse, quarantined, or worst case, deleted (ie, itf it is later found to
contain a malicious payload)."

It is either OK to delete an email or it is not.  You can't have it both
ways.  If, as according to your other statements, it is not OK to delete
emails, then you are violating your own rules by deleting mails - for
ANY reason.

Your reason is "i.e. if it is later found to contain a malicious
payload".  My reason is "It is addressed to a non-existent user".
Either both are OK or neither is OK.

>>> you keep saying that the RECEIVING server 'sends a message back to
>>> the originator' - unless maybe you simply have a hard time saying
>>> what you really mean, which always causes confusion.
> 
>> it does send a message back to the originator - it may only be a
>> status code, but it is still a message.
> 
> The status code is not *sent* anywhere - it is a response directly to
> the connecting machine.
> 

Then how does it get back to the sending server?  Magic?

> It is then the responsibility of that machine that was talking to your
> server to pass the response code back to the originating *server* (not
> the sender of the email - there is a difference).
> 

I didn't say the sender of the email.

> It is then the responsibility of the 'originating server' to generate
> the NDR (non-delivery response) email that the sender then receives in
> their Inbox.
>

I never said otherwise.

> So, again, no, *your* server doesn't 'send anything back to the
> originating server'.
> 

So how does it get back to the sending server?  Magic?

> I'm done with this thread, since Jerry is free to believe whatever he
> wants and run his servers however he wants.
> 
> Thankfully the vast majority of other mail admins use best practices...
> 
> 

And you still can't quote an RFC which indicates what I am doing "breaks
SMTP".  That's because there isn't one and I am NOT breaking SMTP.
Properly addressed email still gets to its destination.

BTW - what happened to all those statistics you quoted?  Where are your
references for them?


Jerry


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