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Re: a minimal copyleft



On Tue, Aug 05, 2003 at 10:17:54PM +0100, Andrew Suffield wrote:

> > IMO the GPL is purposefully vague on this point; if someone (not just
> > the copyright holder) can show reasonably that they preferred a certain
> > form for modification, then they've met the terms of the GPL.

> This means that I can take your GPLed application, modify the binary
> directly (I prefer this form because it is required by my business
> model), and redistribute that - without the source to my changes,
> since I don't prefer that form.

> I reject all interpretations which lead to this result as
> fundamentally flawed.

I reject all interpretations which prohibit this result as fundamentally
flawed.  The GPL is not a hastily written license; every word is
carefully chosen with the intent of promulgating Free Software, in *all*
its forms.  If I make non-trivial modifications to a binary, my
masochism should not make me ineligible to distribute my work under the
GPL.

If a program had been released under the terms of the GPL as machine
language 40 years ago, would that have been acceptable?  If someone
transcribes a program's GPL source from PHP to ASP, or perl to python,
can he still distribute it under the GPL?  The definition of "preferred
form" must be contextual.

-- 
Steve Langasek
postmodern programmer

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