Re: A language by any other name
On Thu, Sep 13, 2001 at 08:06:22PM +0200, Federico Di Gregorio wrote:
> On Thu, 2001-09-13 at 18:26, Gustavo Noronha Silva wrote:
> > Em Fri, 14 Sep 2001 00:11:06 +1000
> > Drew Parsons <firstname.lastname@example.org> escreveu:
> > > I agree. This argument sounds reasonable. If spanish maps to Spain, then
> > > english should map to England.
> > nah.... that's not it... if I understand it correctly, "united states"
> > would map to es_US and "england" would map to en_EN(UK?)...
> my english is really that poor?
I don't think so. I understood perfectly what you meant.
> english is _also_ how the americans call their language, but
> i think it was called english even before Colombo, right?
It's en_UK, btw. And the locale code for pre-Columbus English
is enm_UK (assuming that the locale system uses 3 character codes
where a 2 character one is not available), not en_UK.
David Starner - email@example.com
Pointless website: http://dvdeug.dhis.org
"I don't care if Bill personally has my name and reads my email and
laughs at me. In fact, I'd be rather honored." - Joseph_Greg