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Re: OT: Politics [Was:Social Contract]

On Apr 30, 2006, at 8:37 PM, Curt Howland wrote:

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On Sunday 30 April 2006 15:26, Rich Johnson was heard to say:
On Apr 30, 2006, at 2:31 PM, Curt Howland wrote:
Your premise is false. The "middle class" and "poor" were doing
very well indeed without coercive "public" schooling.

That's a bit of an oxymoron.

Not in the terms of the discussion.

The poor were hardly "doing well" if they were poor.   _How_ well
were they doing (in your book, that is)?

The discussion is in terms of education. Literacy.

The literacy rate of 90%+ prior to compulsory schooling includes poor.
Just as the literacy rate of 50%- at this time includes poor.

Where do these numbers come from?

AFAICT, the 50% number is ~rate of functional literacy of those _without_ a HS diploma or GED. I have no idea what the source of your 90% number is. I was under the impression that in 1840 the overall US literacy rate was about 40%. .

The CIA reports US literacy rate is 99% (//www.cia.gov/cia/ publications/factbook/geos/us.html), and if thats what my government says, it must be so, right?

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