On 2003-09-19 19:37:59 +0100 Fedor Zuev <Fedor_zuev@mail.ru> wrote:
On Wed, 17 Sep 2003, Matthew Garrett wrote:As has been previously pointed out, fair use is far from a universal concept.Berne Convention, art. 10 par. 1
Par 2 says that the extent is a matter for national legislation, assuming http://www.law.cornell.edu/treaties/berne/10.html is accurate.
Within the United Kingdom, it doesn't exist,Copyright, Designs and Patents Act, art. 32.
Please explain how provisions for use in education are the same as "fair use". They do not seem to be, as neither the person copying or the user is necessarily involved in instruction, according to the act's definitions. IANAL but at least I can tell the difference between "fair use" and "education use".
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