""Claus Färber"" <claus@xn--frber-gra.muc.de> wrote in message [🔎] 9pm299F3cDD@gmane.3247.org">news:[🔎] 9pm299F3cDD@gmane.3247.org...
There are two assumptions here that are wrong: . US residents can only be sued in US courts. . US courts can only decide on US copyright law.
Speaking of which, are there any cases in which a US court has made a decision based on a non-domestic law (in a situation where that law applied and the US law did not)? If there are did the court rule based on precedent set by the courts native to that law?
If a US court is deciding a case based on a non-dometic law, and that law is from a civil-law country, should the US court rule based on precident set by the courts native to that law despite the fact that those courts do not rule based on precident, or should the US court rule based on the written law as the courts which are native to the law would?
Claus -- http://www.faerber.muc.de