Hello all, On Wed, Feb 25, 2009 at 01:00:56PM +1100, linuksos wrote: > I have just simple question in regards to the OpenVPN connections. > When using a Certificates and "server" directive in openvpn > configuration file : > server 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 the vpn tunnel is created is follows: > SERVER: > inet addr:192.168.0.1 P-t-P:192.168.0.2 Mask:255.255.255.255 > CLIENT: > inet addr:192.168.0.6 P-t-P:192.168.0.5 Mask:255.255.255.255 > > What is a logic behind a IP address given to the client from the > server. Why first client connected to SERVER does not get 192.168.0.2 > IP address but it gets 192.168.0.6 instead? I'm sure that there is a > good explanation for that and I'm just missing something. See "Why does OpenVPN's "ifconfig-pool" option use a /30 subnet (4 private IP addresses per client) when used in TUN mode?" on <http://openvpn.net/faq.html>: | OpenVPN allocates one /30 subnet per client in order to provide | compatibility with Windows clients due to the limitation of the | TAP-Win32 driver's TUN emulation mode. | | If you know that only non-Windows clients will be connecting to your | OpenVPN server, you can avoid this behavior by using the | ifconfig-pool-linear directive. | | [...] Cheers, Flo
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