On Mon, Dec 12, 2005 at 08:33:38PM +0100, Florian Weimer wrote: Florian> If someone claims that he has placed his software into public domain, Florian> and the person is subject to the jurisdiction of one of the droit Florian> d'auteur countries (Germany for example[1]), shall we interpret this Florian> claim as null and void, or as the grant of very broad usage rights to Florian> the general public? Florian> Florian> [1] Over here, you can't give up some of your rights as an author, Florian> much like you can't sell yourself into slavery. Florian> I concur with the other posters: I would regard it as a grant of broad usage rights, and would suggest MIT-style licensing instead to make things clearer.
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