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Re: "placed into public domain" software from droit d'auteur developers

On Mon, 12 Dec 2005, Florian Weimer wrote:
> If someone claims that he has placed his software into public
> domain, and the person is subject to the jurisdiction of one of the
> droit d'auteur countries (Germany for example[1]), shall we
> interpret this claim as null and void, or as the grant of very broad
> usage rights to the general public?

I would suggest that we treat it as undefined and get clarification
from the author if that is in fact possible. A statement to the effect
that they license the work under MIT in any jurisdiction where their
dedication to the public domain is uneffective should be ideal and

Don Armstrong

"There's no problem so large it can't be solved by killing the user
off, deleting their files, closing their account and reporting their
REAL earnings to the IRS."
 -- The B.O.F.H..

http://www.donarmstrong.com              http://rzlab.ucr.edu

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