Re: "placed into public domain" software from droit d'auteur developers
On Mon, 12 Dec 2005, Florian Weimer wrote:
> If someone claims that he has placed his software into public
> domain, and the person is subject to the jurisdiction of one of the
> droit d'auteur countries (Germany for example[1]), shall we
> interpret this claim as null and void, or as the grant of very broad
> usage rights to the general public?
I would suggest that we treat it as undefined and get clarification
from the author if that is in fact possible. A statement to the effect
that they license the work under MIT in any jurisdiction where their
dedication to the public domain is uneffective should be ideal and
sufficient..
Don Armstrong
--
"There's no problem so large it can't be solved by killing the user
off, deleting their files, closing their account and reporting their
REAL earnings to the IRS."
-- The B.O.F.H..
http://www.donarmstrong.com http://rzlab.ucr.edu
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