"Ken Arromdee" <arromdee@rahul.net> wrote in message [🔎] 20090322071908.98B07BC73@violet.rahul.net">news:[🔎] 20090322071908.98B07BC73@violet.rahul.net...
First sale in the US only applies if the product was made in the US.Where on Earth did you hear or read that? I've never head such a thing.http://supreme.justia.com/us/523/135/case.html Read carefully the sections describing 602(a), particularly page 148. # copies that are not subject to the first sale doctrine-e. g., copies # that are lawfully made under the law of another country
Hmm, interesting...Without scutinizing the code, and reading the entire order I cannot see what exactly is being implied there.
Some of the text appears at a quick glance to imply that giving away a legally owned copy is always allowed unless barred by contractual restircitions, regardless of origin, and it is the right of sale may be lacking in some imported works.
But I only read bits very quickly so I may be completely wrong.IANAL, IANADD.