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Re: Re: MPEG-4 patent license issues - libfaad* and libx264* and other codecs.



On Tue, May 02, 2006 at 01:13:02AM +0100, Matthew William Solloway Bell wrote:

> > On Sat, Apr 29, 2006 at 11:37:39PM +0100, Matthew William Solloway Bell wrote:
> > > The packages libxine1, ffmpeg,  include libfaad*, libx264* or another
> > > codec which implement the MPEG-4 Advanced Audio Coding and Advanced
> > > Video Coding standards. Unfortunately, these are patent encumbered in at
> > > least the USA, and many other countries. To distribute code implementing
> > > any of these patents, a license is required[1], assuming that the
> > > claimed patents are valid. This license requires signing an agreement
> > > and the payment of royalties, which hasn't been done AFAIK, and is
> > > contrary to policy. 
> > > There is evidence of prior attempts of enforcement, specifically against
> > > FAAD at AudioCoding.com[2].

> > This appears to refer to enforcement of patents covering encoding using the
> > codecs in question.  Do libxine1 and ffmpeg implement encoding of these, or
> > just decoding?  Is there a history of enforcement of patents on decoding of
> > the codecs in question?

> Hmmm, I think I have missed something; what makes you draw this
> conclusion? AudioCoding.com has removed all binaries including those
> related to decoding. I see no reference to encoding only in [2]. The
> licensing authorities in [1] have licenses that cover decoders. I did
> look at their patent portfolio, but is was brief and shallow. I'm having
> a closer look now.

Sorry, what I mean is that the AudioCoding.com case involved a work that
implemented both encoding and decoding, therefore we can't infer from it
that patents which apply only to decoders are being actively enforced.

> My apologies, that should read 'It does not appear to me that..." which
> is based on the conclusion of the previous sentence. I was rather hoping
> someone would be able to support or contradict this. Regarding my
> comments on 'prior art', I did not consider 'prior art' to be
> semantically identical to 'no inventive step'; however, I considered
> both to be sufficient condition to deem the patents invalid. Of course,
> I'm not a patent lawyer.

Yeah, they're not exactly semantically identical, but a claim that there is
no inventive step depends on showing that there is prior art, and the ffii
page makes assertions about specific prior art in existence.

-- 
Steve Langasek                   Give me a lever long enough and a Free OS
Debian Developer                   to set it on, and I can move the world.
vorlon@debian.org                                   http://www.debian.org/

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